Dear Colleagues, I would much appreciate your help with these videos.

4 m. old MI bengal cat, seen 3 days ago for a 2 months history of self trauma on tip of tail. Now the last 3cm of tail present signs of ischemic necrosis (dark skin, cold, few small scabs). At presentation, BP and SpO2 where not tested.

Cat belongs to a multicat (5 other) household, purely indoor. Cat is FeLV+/FIV-, has no other symptomatology. rest of cats are FeLV -.

Echocardio: no overt signs of cardiac disease

Dear Colleagues, I would much appreciate your help with these videos.

4 m. old MI bengal cat, seen 3 days ago for a 2 months history of self trauma on tip of tail. Now the last 3cm of tail present signs of ischemic necrosis (dark skin, cold, few small scabs). At presentation, BP and SpO2 where not tested.

Cat belongs to a multicat (5 other) household, purely indoor. Cat is FeLV+/FIV-, has no other symptomatology. rest of cats are FeLV -.

Echocardio: no overt signs of cardiac disease

Tail scan: videos show the ventral artery on both sagittal and transverse view, aprox 1.5-2cm from base of tail, where doppler seems to be interrupted partially. In one of the videos there seems to be a curvature in the vessel which now makes me think of an external mass effect compression rather than an intravascular embolus of some sort. From mid-tail distally my probe does not manage to find any doppler activity,however, the SpO2 was positive for pulse and O2 saturation on tip of tail was 100% just yesterday. I would like some reassurance on my findings.

DDx: I am considering: trauma related compression of artery (soft tissue inflammation…others?),thromboembolic disease (probably not heart related)-hypercoagulation state?, other type of embolus (bacterial, could it be potentially related to FeLV infection in some way? inmunecomplexes?). The question is whether the biting came first due to a vascular problem or second to an initial behavioral issue…It could also mean cold agglutination disease but as per today routine CBC has not been done yet. I practically rule out neoplastic disease (vascular or metastatic) due to age.

For now my colleagues have him on Pen G injs, amoxicalv oral, metacam 0.05mg/kg Sid for 10 days. started yesterday after I did scan. (abs were from start). I feel tempted to investigate further on cold aglutination and wait to see if block improves with given therapy before considering any amputation. Does this sound reasonable?